Tag Archive: diagnosis


Today’s case is not in the ED.  This one unfolds on the ward – the morning after the admission.  So imagine yourself there – on the Paeds surgical ward.

6 year old boy was admitted last evening after referral from the local GP to the on-call Surg team.

He has a 24 hour history of increasing central abdominal pain.  The pain wa initially periumbilical, but overnight it has localized to the lower abdomen – maybe a bit more on the right. Urinalysis was normal

The surgical team have been on their super-early orning rounds and seen the child – they have written in the notes:

tender lower abdo, no rebound, guarding, otherwise soft, afebrile.  Bloods all normal.  PLAN:  Med team consult please.? epurients

OK, now that is Surg -speak for – we aren’t operating on this kid – not a likely appendix.  Turf to med, maybe its constipation?

Half way though your ward round the nurse- coordinator calls you to say:  “You had better come see this kid – he has just had a bout of melena

Hmmmm… not sounding like your average “un-appendix”.  So you pop in and see him.  Mum is looking worried.  His obs are normal, his belly is ‘as described’ by the Surg team.  When you pull down his jocks for a gander at his bottom you notice his scrotum is a bit red, and on examination his left testis is tender and there is a definite hydrocoele.  Hmmmmm…

OK – can you solve this Paediatric puzzle?

What is going on?  Well here is the clincher.

Rash

What are you going to do next?

Congrats to Dr Bek – who as it turns out practices about 500m down the road from me at the local Aboriginal Medical Service.  Bek gave the right and most insightful answer.  Good call from Maj and Patrick also – honorable commendations.  I happen to know Bek was at a recent talk I gave which covered HSP – so technically she did cheat? But I think she already knew before I got to her!

HSP (Henoch-Shonlein purpura) is an IgA-mediated leukocyoclastic vasculitis which produces a syndrome in children as described by the eponymous gents (and Heberden 30 years earlier). They described the quadrad of: purpura, arthralgia, abdominal pain and melena. Of course, they missed the meat – the renal disease. The disease involves a vasculitis of small vessels in the skin, gut, joints, glomeruli etc. It is pretty much the same disease as IgA nephropahy (Berger’s disease) in adults. HSP ends to occur in young children 4 – 10

I love HSP as a diagnosis as it is one of those end-of-the-bed diagnoses which can present in a number of ways – a rash, joint pain, belly aches etc. You have to keep it in you thoughts or you might miss it. The diagnosis is basically clinical – unless it is unclear as to the cause of the rash – so you might check for other causes of purpura. As opposed to ITP etc the platelets will be normal or elevated.

Treatment is mainly symptomatic – analgesia and “surgical” management of complications such as intussusception or torsion. GI bleeding, abdo pain and joint pain are usually treated with oral steroids. Does it work?  Well – maybe.  There are papers in both direction but they are all small and lack the power to say yes or no.  A rough summary is that they might make you belly pain get better sooner,  make the likelihood of an operation or CT scan lower and just might improve joint symptoms.  Now onto the million dollar question… the beans.

The reason HSP is an important problem in the long term is that there is an incidence of chronic renal disease. Usually a nephritic syndrome (though some mixed or nephrotic). And some of these kids will progress to renal failure. Here is the problem – there are studies that show that early steroids, and even cyclophosphamide do not reduce this progression. So we cannot treat the serious complication.

Monitoring includes urinalysis testing, BP monitoring – as there is about a 7% recurrence rate and the risk of renal disease goes up with recurrence and older-age of the kid.

 

I was sitting at the desk writing up some notes when the triage nurse stuck the following ECG strip under my nose.

The story was that this chap was a hypertensive, obese, diabetic vasculopath with impaired renal function who had presented with a fever of 39 deg and nasty looking diabetic feet (see Clinical case 047 for example…).  He was looking unwell so she did an ECG on the off chance he might be having a silent infarction.

So here we are – sick looking, high-risk sounding patient.

No chest pain; No previous IHD documented; Previous ECGs? – he had a normal exercise stress test 2 years ago with a normal baseline ECG in the chart

OK, all you smart ED types.  Can you make the diagnosis?  What is going on here?  There might be a trick or two …..

Ok a few observant comentators noted the machine was running at 50mm/sec – and the V leads were missing. The patient was running at 126 bpm clinically and on the monitor. Unfortunately our new nurse who was not familiar with the machine pushed the wrong buttons and gave me a terrifying minute or two as I made my way to the bedside! The penny eventually dropped and I could breathe a big sigh of relief!. The true ECG showed a tachy @ 126 with a RBBB pattern and no convincing P waves. So channeling Chris Watford (Emcrit) I did a Lewis lead config – and the P-waves popped up like they should! Sweet – we were back to boring old sinus tachy in a septic patient and all was well!

1. Always look at the patient before the ECG, or at least shortly thereafter!

2. If something doesn’t add up, check the basics, repeat the test and ask, ask, ask

3. Septic patients can develop nasty arrythmias – SVT, AF, transient heart blocks (RBBB), VT etc – so beware the sepsis with tachy, find those P-waves – as all the other options are not good for their cardiac output.

4. Lewis leads (S5) actually works, it is cheap, easy and makes you look smarter!

 

Hi guys! GP land has been going really well with me slowly gaining a following of patients and some interesting cases. I wanted to share with you one which I sought help from and excellent service called Tele-Derm. It was set up by ACRRM and the Queensland Divisions of General Practice (QDGP) with Commonwealth funding in 2004 and it is run by one of the most hard working dermatologists dedicated to providing a reliable service for rural Australia, Dr Jim Muir.

If you are a rural doctor with a dermatology dazzler or puzzler, you can electronically submit cases for assessment and usually within 48hours or in my case 27minutes! Jim will give you a diagnosis or point you in the right direction. He also moderates a forum with great educational cases, links and discussions.

So…

45 year old man came to see me with the rash as depicted below.

It started  4 days after coming back from Thailand where he relaxed on the beach, went snorkelling and ate yummy thai food. He came in to see me 10 days after getting home.

The rash started spreading, beginning on his left flank and moving up toward his axilla with one lesion on his upper back and a few over his lower abdomen.

The main issue was itch and is pain at times (not unbearable). He described it as “catching your skin on a bit of metal”. He has put some over the counter creams to relieve the itch but nothing helped.

He didn’t report a fever or being unwell. He also concurrently did not have a productive cough, dysuria, diarrhoea, cachexia or anorexia.

On examination he was afebrile and other observations within normal limits. He did not have any inguinal or axillary lympadenopathy. He didnt have any other rashes or scaly and dry skin.

He assured me he wasnt bitten by any mosquitos nor was he bitten by any marine life.

Im sitting there scratching my head thinking, “its not cellulitis, its not fungal, its not dermatitis..what is it?”.

What do you think?  Its a once seen never forgotten clinical case!

       

(C) 2012 All images copyrighted to Jonathan Ramachenderan

37 yo man who works as a travelling sales rep.  He has a hectic lifestyle and is overweight.  Flies around the country a lot visiting hospitals selling medical equipment.  He presents via ambulance after having a syncopal episode in the local McD’s.

The event was witnessed by a client and staff at the restaurant – he was a bit sweaty, got up to go to the bathroom and fell, he narrowly avoided hitting his head on a chair as he collapsed to the ground. No seizure activity, incontinence or neurolgical deficit noted at the scene. He was unconscious for about a minute.  When the ambos arrived 5 minutes later he was GCS – 15, oriented, though seemed a ‘bit vague’.

Whilst in your small country town for a 3 day visit he notices that he has become increasingly “unwell” – he can’t really put a finger on it -he says he “has been hazy in the head”  and “feeling like nothing seems real”  for the last 48 hours.  No specific vertigo symptoms, headaches or pre-syncopal events have been noted.

Overweight BMI = 35

Hypertensive – was on ramipril, but stopped taking it as it interfered with his ‘performance’

Smoker – 10 -15 per day

1 episode of gout effecting MTP jt

Depression – currently on 40 mg paroxetine/day, good response to this and supportive therapy from GP

Dyslipidemia – trialing “diet and exercise”

He is a fat, slightly sweaty man, looks a good few years older than 37!

Obs: pulse = 85 reg, BP 145/90 no postural drop, SpO2 = 99% RA, RR 14/min, no clinical pallor, anaemia etc

Otherwise his heart, chest, neuro, abdo etc are all normal.

What specific negatives do you want to ensure on physical examination??  What can you exclude by looking and listening?

BSL is 6 mmol (~110 in the U.S.A)

ECG – normal, sinus rhythm, maybe borderline for LVH criteria, normal axis.

What specific features / conditions do you want exclude / or see on the resting ECG in a man with syncope?

Urninalysis is = SG 1.015, 1+protein, otherwise normal

Plum normal

pH 7.41, lactate 0.4 mmol He has a Hb of 156 g/l

Electric lights are all normal

Nothing to write home about… What were you hoping not to see ?

OK, that is it for now.  At this stage I will tell you that any further tests that you want to do are either negative or unavailable in our little ED scenario.

The diagnosis is out there…  first prize goes to the reader who asks the right questions to solve the puzzle.

Ready, set, go…. write your thoughts on the comments and I will respond

A  40 yo. woman presents for review to her GP a week after having a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

She had been suffering with epigastric pain and and US showed gallstones, and a contracted GB.  So she elected to undergo cholecystectomy.She was discharged the morning after the surgery with oral oxycodone and paracetamol for pain.

PMHx:  anaemia, mild depression.  She takes an iron supplement and citalopram 20 mg daily

Today she has recovered well from the procedure, but has developed bilateral tingling of the hands since leaving hospital and it has not improved – in fact she now says after a week it has spread up her arms, and her toes feel ‘tingly’ over the last few days.

OK – that is it.  Usually when I put up these cases you smart docs work it out in a heartbeat – so I am giving you the minimum amount of info!  80% of diagnosis is on history - so go for it…

What is the diagnosis?  What investigation will make you look like a super-Sherlock?  and what intervention will fix her?

There just might be a real prize if you are first in!   Casey

Todays case is bread and butter GP / Paeds.

13/12 old boy presents with a 2 day history of mild fever, irritable and loose stools.

This rash – yep those are vesicles

What is your differential diagnosis?

OK all you Paeds sleuths – hit me on the comments – the prize (love and respect – as always) goes to the first in / best answer.

Casey

You may have noticed my recent obsession with all things respiratory.  Seeing and personally experiencing a lot of LRTIs recently. 

A few weeks back Cliff Reid @resus.me put up this article for discussion: Lung US for pneumonia in ED, Emerg Med Journ 2012.  Which suggests that US is at least as good as an CXR for the early diagnosis of pneumonia and actually picked a few more when the CTs were compared as a gold standard.  It was a small study of 120 patients – so I thought I would look further into the literature – see what else is out there.  Here is what I found:

Evaluation of lung ultrasound for the diagnosis of pneumonia in the ED. Amer Journ Emerg Med 2009

Ultrasound diagnosis of pneumonia in children.  Radiol Med. 2008

Clinical application of transthoracic ultrasonography in inpatients with pneumonia.  Europ Journ Clinical Investigation 2011.

Diagnosis of radio-occult pulmonary conditions by real-time chest ultrasonography in patients with pleuritic pain.  Ultrasound in Med Biol 2008

It seems the Italian sonographic community have cornered the market in all things chest US in the past few years!

So in summary if you are too busy to read the articles – there are a pile of little observational studies out there that all say the same thing – US is as good as a CXR, maybe a little more sensitive for showing pneumonia / consolidation.  It is very likley to be better than the clinical examination – however that is not how this works. 

If you hear something or are unsure – then use the probe as the next “test” – if you get a positive then likley you have found a pneumonic process.  You can treat this as clinically appropriate, and still get a CXR if necessary later.  However, especially in kids – do you really need to irradiate them?  Or can we use clinical progress, repeat US and still achieve the same ends?

I suspect those of us who grew up on CXR diagnosis will be more comfortable seeing a positive, or a negative – however if you look in the numbers – CXR has a significant false negative rate in pneumonia (especially early in the disease) – so should we be so comfortable?  I think this is one of those common biases in Medicine – we attribute too much weight to a familiar test, even though we know it might be steering us in the wrong direction.  We like yes/no, black/white answers – and believe in CXR as it has been drilled into us from day 1 of Med School!

This is a great example of US being an “extension of the clinical examination” rather than a “test” – after all, with US you are looking at the sound that you might be able to hear with your stethoscope and ears.  I suspect in 10 years this will be something we teach in Medical Schools – the old look, listen, feel, percuss with have “scan” added to the end of the exam.

Love to hear your thoughts

Casey

Todays case is not too tricky.  The context is a recent epidemic of bronchiolitis in the Kimberley region.  So lots of coughing, sick babies all over the NW.

This 3 month old girl presented to a remote nursing post (just under 1000 km away) with a one day history of cough, increasing dyspnoea and a fever.  She was seen and thought to have bronchiolitis – young enough and unwell enough to need transfer to Broome.

So we saw her at 6 AM after evacuation by RFDS.  And she looked sick – now hypothermic 35.0, RR = 55, grunting / subcostal recession,  desaturated to 85% off of oxygen.  So something is going on….

At this point I was thinking – probably bronchiolitis, looks pretty unwell.  And then I put on the stethoscope – nothing, no wheeze, crackles or anything to suggest bronch.  She had a flow murmur consistent with her degree of unwellness, but the chest was quiet.  This is NOT bronchiolitis!

So my usual teaching to the students is to never do a CXR on a kid you think has bronchiolitis UNLESS they don’t fit or they don’t follow the bronchiolitis plan.

This kid looked sick and I was thinking sepsis – hypothermia, breathing up, clear sounding chest – maybe compensating for septic acidosis?  So IV access, empirical ABs, and a saline bolus in.  Septic screen – urine catch, blood cultures and consider an LP.  I decided to wake up the radiographer and get a CXR

CXR – RUL consolidation

I thought I would share this case as I never get such a nice clear pic on XR, and I think it demonstrates an important principle of diagnostic decision-making.

I am not to proud to say that I think my auscultation is really not that great in small infants to pick local chest signs.  I think we should realise this and accept that a normal exam in no way excludes lung pathology.

If you have a piece of data that doesn’t fit with your provisional diagnosis, then DON”T ignore it. Sometimes it is a significant negative finding – a quiet chest doesn’t fit with bronchiolitis. It is human nature to try and force data to fit into our working diagnosis – a common error or bias. Ignoring a significant negative is easier than leaving out a positive finding.

A few weeks ago Rob Orman (ER Cast) did a great interview with Dr Ingrid Lim at ACEP which looked at the diagnosis of the possible appendicitis in pregnant women.  Go and check out the 20 minute podcast at ERCast (click here) , then come back here to hear the sequel….

There are some great pearls that came out of this talk – HCG uses and interpretation (my review of some old literature), the role of US and CT as diagnostic tools in pregnancy and when to operate?  But, after this I had some acute onset confusion – as an ED doc your job is to make the diagnosis, try and sell it to a surgeon – then off to OT or not.  But what are the risks of going to do an exploratory laparoscopy / laparotomy in the common scenario where you are just not sure, don’t think a CT is worth the risk or you have no imaging available???

So after Rob O poked the fate Gods in the eye with a stick I ended up seeing 2 pregnant ?appendixes in one shift!  Thanks Rob.  So I spent the time it takes to “fast a pregnant lady” looking at the evidence, reviews and opinion that is out there in the surgical literature.  And now I am even more confused – more so than after listening to the average SMART EM podcast!  So many twists and turns – David Newman, can you help me?

All the evidence is retrospective analysis – ethics make it tough to do it any other way.  There are a couple of really big registry studies that give a big picture of the problem:

McGory et al analyzed over 3000 pregnant women undergoing appendectomy around the turn of the millenium and discovered a few points:

  • The rate of “negative appendix” was higher in pregnant vs. non-pregnant women (23% vs 18%; p <0.05) – I am gonna guess this is due to the technical difficulty with US in pregnancy and the reluctance to do a CT – so more going to OT with less ‘diagnostic’ work up.
  • The rate of perf / complex appendix was the same as in the general population ~ 30%
  • If you looked at Fetal loss and preterm delivery (bad, patient oriented outcomes) – there was an interesting pattern:
    • It was high in those with perforation / complex appendix – as you might expect – around 6% fetal loss
    • The women with simple appy, ie. not perfed, did better – around 2 % fetal loss
    • The surprise was that women with “negative appendix” – no disease had a rate of fetal loss slightly greater than the ‘simple appendicitis’ group
    • I have no idea why, maybe their pain was related to a uterine / ovarian problem – so the appy was an innocent bystander?

So the conclusion is that you need to decrease your “negative appy” rate in pregnant women – which I assume means doing more CTs and USS.  Watchful waiting may not be a good option – because they do a lot worse if they perforate and get systemically unwell etc.  I think the risk of CT (about 2x rate of childhood cancers) is small when you compare it to the risk of fetal loss (6+%)  BUT…. you are asking a woman to compare apple seeds and oranges – I think this is so dependent on the individuals world view, beliefs and maybe religion that it is just too hard to make a sweeping statement.  HMMMM…difficult…

 

So lets say – you dont have a CT (or patient refused it), the USS is inconclusive, but you are 66% sure on clinical grounds with a bit of a white-cell bump that is is an appendicitis.  You sell it to the surgeon, she says:

“well, OK it might be.  I’ll stick in a laparoscope and have a look, then proceed with appy if positive…  Oh, and then I can look and see if there is anything else going on at the same time”   Sounds like a sweet plan on first hearing it – but what does the evidence show?

Dr Walsh and colleagues in the UK did a review of the data (Int Jour Surgery) and showed more telling points in this debate:

  • Rates of fetal loss at laparoscopic appendicectomy were 6%, and significantly worse than open appendicectomy.
  • Fetal loss was greatest in the complex / perforated appendix group as with McGory
  • Fetal loss was the same for simple appendicitis as the “negative appy” groups – as in McGory
  • Showed the same higher “negative appendectomy” rate – around 27% – in non-pregnant women
  • Tocolytic agents did not make a difference in rates of preterm labour etc
  • “entry related complications” – (stabbing the uterus?) were low, but you should go with open Hasson technique – not the Veress needle.

So where does this leave us?  The data suggests a few points to me – maybe you can read it differently:

  • Lowering the “false appendicitis” at surgery will reduce the fetal loss / complications – so you should be doing all the tests, including USS and maybe CT to reduce the risk of unnecessary operations.  Admittedly – this is far from a perfect science – there will always be some ‘lily white’ appys.
  • Cast you diagnostic net fine and wide – get a good urine off for microscopy – the commonest “final diagnosis” in the false appendix patients was pyelonephritis
  • If you are going to operate – maybe minimalism is the best bet – minimal anaesthetics drugs, shortest sleep time, maybe open is better than laparoscopic techniques for these women?
  • Of course if you go in with a gridiron incision – you might miss the other pathology – eg. torsion of ovary. So here is a downside there too.
Let me know if you have another way of thinking about all this?  KNow of any good studies that change the strategy?  I would love to know…
Casey

OK after Clinical Case 031 I was inspired to go out and slog through the literature and try to discover what is “best practice” for traumatic bleeding, then try and work out what is important, what we can do in small or remote hospitals and what is just too expensive / difficult / marginal or plain impossible to do in the bush.  There was a great review in Critical Care last year by Rossaint et al – Updated European Guidelines - so I have used this as a starting point.  Also a review by Curry et al looked at similar data / trials.

So I spent time going over the evidence, and came up with the post below.  The evidence is there, so you can read it for yourself, however, there is no evidence for my opinions – that you can decide for yourself.  As always – I have tried to keep it simple, my brain being the filter for your reading pleasure!  I have given each “recommendation” a grade from A to F (A = gotta do it,\; C = maybe useful; and F = ‘don’t go there’…)  So here it is….it is big, apologies!

This is an A1 recommendation. In patients who are either unstable or have an identified source of bleeding – they need an operation as soon as possible. Time is vital to outcomes.  Let me repeat – if you know where the blood is leaking from – plug it ASAP – do not resuscitate in lieu of intervening with a procedure.

So for the small centres – this means getting into an OT as soon as you can, less time in ED and less fiddling with resuscitation efforts prior to surgery. If you work in a town without a surgeon – then mobilising retrieval early is important. I have on a few occasions arranged for a surgeon to be flown in with the crew to operate prior to transfer.

If your patient responds well to initial resuscitation measures – then you have time, but it should be clear that they need to get to a place where they can get an urgent operation ASAP

We have all been through ATLS or EMST and learned about primary and secondary surveys. What I will say is that there is not much evidence to suport this strategy, but it is universal and you have to do it. However, doing the classic ABCs doesn’t really help you when it comes to the reality of big bleeding patients – the evidence has moved on a bit.

Your initial clinical assessment should answer the following questions:

  1.  mechanism: is this a significant injury? eg. energy of blunt impact, penetrating abdo or thoracic trauma, head injury with any change in GCS.
  2. Pattern of injury:  is this a cluster of injuries, rather than a single overt lesion.  Along with mechanism, the presence of a cluster of injuries should get you worried.
  3. Patient’s physiology / obs / general presentation:  the obs are helpful, but can be normal despite significant bleeds, especially in fit, young people.  You can use the ATLS guide to shock, but know it can be wrong
  4. Response to initial resuscitation – for me this is more useful than the absolute numbers.  The ATLS folks divide these into: rapid responders, transient responders and minimal / non-responders.  You get the idea – give a bit of fluid and watch closely – are you winning?  A pragmatist’s approach to shock – I love this concept – use it every day in my practice.

If you have a patient presenting in shock after trauma and it is unclear as to where the bleeding is coming from then you have to find it fast. If you find it – then you are in the position to intervene.

Resuscitation without identifying the source can waste valuable time. In reality the resus and investigation happen in parallel ideally.

So what investigations? they are guided by you initial assessment, but empirical CXR, pelvis and FAST scanning are mandatory.  The evidence discusses DPL (diagnostic peritoneal lavage) but in my world this is not done – maybe if you have a surgeon with experience, but a FAST is hard to beat when you look at the numbers.  Image anything else you find on you secondary survey.

Shock is defined as tissue hypoperfusion, and this does not equate to the blood pressure. [There is a whole other post coming up on this concept!]

So what measures tissue hypoperfusion? at this stage, serum lactate is your most evidence-based test.  Base deficit is also used with less evidence to support it – but in my hospital they both spit out on the same gas analysis – so use both.  Beware the youngish, sweating / spewing chap with a normalish BP and high lactate – he is on his way to crashville.  [See this article on 'Cryptic sepsis']

I was taught to aim for a low normal ET CO2, but the evidence now suggests this is wrong. The Guidelines recommend normocapnea.

Hyperventilation is associated with poor outcomes (even in brain-injury) including increased mortality, decreased cardiac output and all round badness.

The vent strategy is essentially the same strategy the ARDS Net folks came up with for lung injured patients. The recipe is – low tidal volume (eg. 6 ml/kg IBW), higher RR to keep the minute volume up and clear CO2, and add PEEP to maintain open airways and titrate to oxygenation.  See my case on postop PEEP++ for an example of this strategy.  I now use this on all my intubated patients (even elective gallbags) -unless they have COPD / bad asthma / obstruction.

The evidence shows that using Hct alone is about as good as tossing a coin in the air! It is a poor predictor of volume lost or prognosis. I think you can put Hb in the same basket. It is good to know and use serial assessments, but it is just a part of your more global assessment.

Not a lot of evidence. But it makes sense to try and detect coagulopathy early by testing for it. Of course clinical observation of bleeding and knowing how much fluid / blood has been given can allow you to anticipate ACoTS before the lab can tell you the numbers are bad. The studies did not show much benefit but we should probably check the INR, APTT, platelets and fibrinogen levels. In my practice – I start giving FFP, etc before the labs go bad in the big bleeders – I think this is because – (1) it makes sense to get ahead of the game and (2) the lab can be slow, over an hour to get some results – too late usually.  So if your lab wants confirmation of coagulopathy before the take the FFP out of the freezer – you need to have a ‘meeting’ and change this!

The future includes thromboelastography – this is basically a test of clot strength.  This is used to guide treatment with a variety of coagulation factors – but don’t hold your breath in the regional hospitals – this is still a long way off!

There are some bleeds that need something simple done.

(1) arterial bleeding from and extremity. There is a growing body of evidence from the military showing the safety and improved mortality of torniquet use. See my previous post on Life AND Limb

(2)  Pelvic fracture stabilisation. This depends on where you are and what you have got – but a bed sheet tied around the trochanters is infinitely better than nothin’.  If you have a purpose designed pelvis binder-  then better.  For most small hospitals, that is as good as it gets.  The goal is to make the pelvic volume as small as possible by reducing the injury.

Embolisation seems to be the done thing if you have an angio suite at your disposal.

If you have not heard of this concept before – it basically consists of 3 stages:

(1) Brief ‘resuscitative laparotomy’ – control active bleeding, remove contamination, pack the abdomen and get out

(2) Off to ICU for resuscitation and normalisation of the acidosis, hypothermia and coagulopathy. Optimise fluid status and ventilatory management.

(3) Return to OT for a definitive fix of the injuries / closure of wounds.  This may be hours to days later depending on the injury

There are no RCTs to support this but a lot of retrospective data supports it – it is the new standard of care for the severe end of the trauma spectrum – especially those who have significant acidosis, coagulopathy and low core temp at the outset.

Here we run into some controversy / uncertainty in the literature. What fluid, how much, targets of resus?

Which fluid?  Crystalloids remain the first line.  Most trauma patients now get them en route to the ED.  However, there is evidence showing a direct survival relationship between the volume of crystalloid and mortality.  So if you use them I think it is as a bridge to getting some blood ready.  In my experience too many crystalloids are given in an attempt to get the BP up to unnecessary heights (We are treating our own pulse, rather than the patient’s!)

Which crystalloid – well CSL, Ringer’s etc are good if you patient is acidotic.  See Emcrit’s Acid-base lectures on this.  Saline seems popular – but why? I don’t know, tradition?  It doesn’t make sense in terms of acidosis management – makes it worse not better!

Hypertonic saline (7.5% + dextran) is the new concept here – smaller volumes, and has been used extensively on the Mid-East battlefields.  Watch this space…

Blood products – packed red cells, FFP in my hospital  - these are the mainstay of volume resuscitation in severe trauma.  How to use them – well the Guidelines suggest a target of Hb = 70 – 90 g/L.  However if you are doing a “sympatholytic” resuscitation or “controlled volume / permissive hypotension” then you titrate the fluids to the BP – aiming for a MAP above 65.  Yes, I said 65, which is same as 75/60, or about 80 systolic for round numbers.  This seems low to those of us who trained in Anaesthesia, but that is what the evidence says!

How much?  Well – enough, and just that much – until you can get control of the bleeding source(s).  As above target is MAP > 65.  If you can measure other markers of preload eg. IVC collapse or SVV maybe you can titrate to those as well?  Not sure of the evidence here…

An important caveat to this:  if you have a head-injured or spinal cord patient – then you need a higher target SBP – you probably want to aim for triple figures here [100+]

Ratio of RBCs to FFP (+/- platelets)?  This is a tricky question.  The evidence for RBCs and FFP is much better than adding platelets into the mix, fortunately most small hospitals don’t keep platelets – so the decision to not use them is very easy!  Lots of retrospective, registry analysis of the RBC:FFP ratios has been done.   1:1 is popular, however the dust seems to settle with a ratio somewhere between 1:2 and 1:3 giving the best outcomes.  In the reality of rural practice you have already given at least 4 bags of red before the first FFP is thawed, so I aim for a 1:1 after the FFP is available – the ratio then eventually approaches 1:1 as you give more and more volume, and if you stop early then they probably were not as sick as you thought?  No evidence, just bloody-minded pragmatism.

Calcium has many jobs to do, and in bleeding it has a crucial role in: inotropy, coagulation factors and avoiding citrate toxicity in massive transfusion.

Calcium can be given as CaCl, or Ca-gluconate.  Basically the Ca++ in CaCl is immediately available, but harsh on the veins.  Ca-gluc is cleaved by the liver to release into the plasma ionised Ca++. In severe shock you might want to go with CaCL as hepatic metabolism might be impaired.

The goal is to get the ionised Ca++ level up to around 1.0 mmol/l, acidosis does reduce the available Ca+.

The evidence for the infusion of platelets is not as good as FFP. There are studies showing improved survival if the ratios infused were better than 1:5. In most small hospitals it is a non-argument – they are just too hard to store and not gonna get used frequently enough to justify the expense. If you are giving platelets the recommendation is to aim for a level of 50, or maybe 100 for the brain-injured.

These contain a variety of clotting factors – but importantly they are the only real source of fibrinogen in modern practice. (although FFP has fibrinogen also). This should be used if you show a low fibrinogen level.  This might be viable in small places – though does it add more than just giving more FFP?

PCC is a combo of the vit K dependent factors, protein C and S. It is stored for a good period and doesn’t need cross matching – so it is easy to use. It is expensive, but the in vivo testing(in animal models) shows it is effective for reversing coagulopathy of trauma – better than FFP in ‘mildly hypothermic pigs’.  Not just for those on warfarin. There is a theoretical risk of thrombotic events – so use some mechanical prophylaxis to prevent DVT.  There are a few small trials and reviews: Critical care, and Euro Journ Anaesthesiology.

I think this is viable in the smaller hospitals – easy to store, use and has effects.  I think I might pester the accounting department about this….

This is really controversial. rFVII is super- expensive and hasn’ really passed the evidence-in-practice test from what I can see. It seems to be down the bottom of all the algorithms, and hear this – you need to have all your ducks in a row before using it – make sure the other factors are all replenished, the big vessels are tied and your Ca, fibrinogen and pH are all sweet. For me this is likely not enough bang for my buck in a small centre.

This is not a drug for trauma. Full stop. If you have a bleeder with known vWF problem then you might talk to a Haematologist about it.

CRASH-2 was a huge trial that looked at IV tranexamic acid for trauma. And it showed a mortality benefit – only a small one though – ~ 1.5%.  It was safe though – so not much downside.  Did not reduce the volume of blood required – so may not help you in the instant…

Caveats – you have to use it early.  Get the initial bolus in ASAP then you have a slow 8 hour bag to run in at your leisure.  For me this is now something I do in my hospital – it is cheap and pretty easy.

Watch out for upcoming trials in obstetric bleeding – might be another string to our bow there too!

Sorry folks – it was a marathon of mostly my ramblings and I am asking you to take my word on all of that – but the evidence is not very clear in this field – there are many ways to “resuscitate an exsanguinating cat”.  I would love to hear your questions and comments – so I know if this is total gibberish or if you think it might apply to your place.  Hit me on the comments.

Casey